»Zero divided by zero... what is it?«
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 Actually, division by zero is not defined. The solution doesn't exist. Anyway, take any positive number that is not zero and divide it through x : y/x the smaller x gets, the closer the result will be to infinite. If x would be 0 (and this is not defined), then the result would be infinite now take the same number and multiply it with -1 and divide the result through x (y*-1)/x now, the smaller x gets, the closer the result will be to minus infinite If you add your chosen y and -y, you'll get 0. As you know, a/b + c/b = (a+c)/b Therefore 0/infinite is the same as infinite - infinite. And this is 0. Another 'proof' : If you divide 1 through infinite, you get 0. x/0 is the same as x*(1/0). Therefore you can substitute x*(1/0) with x*infinite . If you say x=0 then you get 0*infinite and that's zero because no matter with what number you multiply NOTHING, it stays NOTHING. posted by anonymyus |
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| in-my-opinion.orgTechnology, Computers, Science, InternetLanguage, Math and NamesZero divided by zero... what is it? |
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 anonymyus: Actually, division by zero is not defined. That's what my calculator says too - but then my calculator says "BOOBS" when you multiply 5,339 by 15  anonymyus: y/x
the smaller x gets, the closer the result will be to infinite. and the smaller y gets, the closer the result will be to zero. If x and Y are reduced together by the same factor, the result is unchanged... 18 / 9 = 2 12 / 6 = 2 6 / 3 = 2 3 / 1.5 = 2 1 / 0.5 = 2 0.00001 / 0.000005 = 2 So if this pattern continued, no matter how close they both got to zero, the answer would always be 2. But if x = y (as the original problem states) the result would be 1. 18 / 18 = 1 9 / 9 = 1 ... 0.00001 / 0.00001 = 1 anonymyus: ...no matter with what number you multiply NOTHING, it stays NOTHING. Unless of course you decide that Infinity is not a number 
But you forgot that other little gem, no matter what number you multiply by INFINITY, it stays INFINITY. So we're back to square one (or is that square Zero  )
posted by Marl64 |
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Marl64: But if x = y (as the original problem states) the result would be 1. Or -1, because you can't tell whether 0 is positive or negative. 0 equals -0 0/-0 = -1 posted by anonymyus |
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i said 0/0 = 0 but i have another explanation if you are deviding any number by 0 than you are deviding it by a " nothing " so you are not deviding it then it will stay the same ! if that number was 0 then 0/0 = 0 posted by zombi |
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 It's surprising no one has introduced limits here. Infinity and division by zero occur all the time in math, but the only meaningful way to deal with them is with limits. If you don't remember limits, try  So, instead of saying using 1/0 (which is undefined) we say 'Limit of 1/x as x tends to 0'. And that value is quite very well defined for both sides, its infinity, and it turns up all the time. Division by infinity would be, 'Limit of 1/x as x tends to infinity', and its value is, of course, 0. Expressing 0/0 as a limit would be, 'x/x as x tends to 0'. When we deal with limits where both the numerator and denominator are zero (or infinity, and a couple of other forms) there's a useful theorem called L'Hospital's Rule (LOPEy-tall) : the value of the limit is equal to the derivative (with respect to x) of the numerator divided by the derivative of the denominator. In english, that means, you just differentiate both the numerator and denominator (separately) until you get a limit that doesnt look strange. So, applying L'Hospital to 'x/x', the limit becomes 1/1, and so the value of 'the limit of x/x as x tends to 0' is 1. You can get the same thing if you don't use L'Hospital at all, but it shows that even if you do it rigorously you get 1. So that's the only meaningful way to deal with it, as far as I know; maybe in set or group theory or something there's a better treatment, but it's unlikely. That's all there is to it as far as mathematics is concerned, but if you want a pre-pre-calculus sixth-grade debate "But what does it REALLY mean?" I guess you can keep debating about it. BlueSky: I don't know. But if you choose a limited frame of reference, you can get answers depending on your frame of reference.
In Newtonian domain (everyday sense), absolute zero is a concept but not everyday reality. It is impossible to create a perfect vacuum. Some finite mass is always left there. So Zero is jut very small yet finite number beyond our least count.This approximates our equation to: 0/0 = X0/X0 (X0 is not absolute zero, but a very very small finite number) = 1 In Quantum sense, it can be seen as probability and absolute zero does exist as 'impossibility'. This reduces the equation to 0/0 = (0)*(1/0) = Zero percent probability * 100% probability = Zero overall probability = 0 If we are dealing with space with huge mass energy interconversion's (e=mc2) like those in black holes. 0/0 = (0) * (1/0) = (No mass, but all energy, light rays) * (infinite mass but no light escaping like in black hole) = (infinite mass-energy complex)*(infinite mass-energy complex) = infinite mass-energy complex 0/0= infinity Wow, that's a very impressive way to elaborate on 'I don't know'. To put it gently, that post means absolutely nothing. Bluntly, it's just a lot of scientific sounding bullshit. There are actually people who do this and making a living out of it - read Baudrillard, Lacan or Kristeva. If you want to understand or possibly cure yourself of this disease read 'Fashionable Nonsense' by Alan Sokal and Jean Bricmont. Knn, I wish you could make this BlueSky guy come back so I can make fun of him. posted by ralph_angelus |
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 ralph_angelus: Wow, that's a very impressive way to elaborate on 'I don't know'. To put it gently, that post means absolutely nothing. Bluntly, it's just a lot of scientific sounding bullshit. Come one
This whole thread is about "intuitively guessing what 0/0 is". No need to get harsh. If anyone is guilty of nonsense, then it's me, 'coz I started this thread. 
I liked zombi's post. X/0 = X 
posted by knn |
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knn: This whole thread is about "intuitively guessing what 0/0 is". I had no intuitive guess on this. As soon as I read it, I remembered being taught that anything divided by 0 is undefined. Leave it to blind memorization to ruin fun! posted by Laraimaem |
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Were it to be anything but undefined it can be shown to be equal to anything and everything. First of all let's mention some of the other "inderminate forms". 0/0 infinity/infinity infinity - infinity 0*infinity 1^infinity 0^0 For those who are unaware ^ represents "to the power". All of these are undefined and all are somewhat equivalent (all pose identical problems and are delt with using identical methods). I believe someone has already shown 0/0 is the same as infinity-infinity but continued on to state a totally wrong conclusion! woops. Let's visit that again. using 1-1=0 we have, 0/0 = (1-1)/0 = 1/0 - 1/0 1/0 is either infinity or - infinity in either case we get 0/0=infinity-infinity Now pick your favorate number. I'm feeling uncreative today so I'll pick 2. Let's suppose infinity-infinity=2. It's impossible to get greater than infinity (at least in a numerical context) so 1+infinity=infinity. infinity - infinity = (1 + infinity) - infinity = 1 + (infinity - infinity) = 1 + 2 = 3. so infinity-infinity=2... and 3... and... well... take your pick. posted by theedeo |
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